Yes and no. I am wrong in that Pharaoh is mentioned after exodus. I am right in no Pharaoh before exodus.
Thatâs a wrong.
When did that happen? Has He done anything omnipotent recently?
You need to know where to look and have eyes to see. https://discourse.biologos.org is not the worst place.
So who or what is the Pharaoh in the story of Joseph? Genesis 39.
And guess what, the Hebrew ×¤Öˇ×¨Ö°×˘Öš× for Pharaoh is another loan word for Egyptian. From your favorite Net Bible.
You really need to come up with a reasonable explanation for why there are so many Egyptian loan words in Hebrew.
And Abrahamâs pharaoh? But they arenât named, you see.
Do they have to be? If someone writing about WW II refers to âThe Kingâ is it an invalid reference without the âGeorge VIâ? In the case of the OT we may not know exactly to which Pharaoh the writer is referring, but we can be pretty sure it was an Egyptian King. Unless of course you are willfully trying to avoid a contradiction in your pet theory.
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Surely not!?
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Some unnamed king descendant of ravana in the indus valley.
You say.
If someone writing about WW II refers to âThe Kingâ is it an invalid reference without the âGeorge VIâ?
Not if we were discussing 1000 years later whether germany was invaded from England or Ireland.
Please see my earlier explanation. 1. Egyptian has origins in Indus valley. 2. A person composing a text in say swahili in Egypt about events in Africa that took place 1000 years ago would naturally use some local Egyptian words. 3 the loanwords you present are common names. I have shown parallels in proper names in Indus valley which stands taller.
Also please respond to my other post. Exodus from Egypt or Indus Valley?
So what happened in that vast river system in NE Africa? Or rather what didnât, whereas it did in every other major southern Eurasian river system? Why didnât what happened in them, happen there?
Exactly. Thanks.
Theyâre always handy to have around. ; - ) (Especially when youâre trying to construct an alternative history.)
There you go with yet another âcouldâ. AKA the Bharatj rescue device.
Try âNot if we were discussing 1000 years later whether germany was invaded from England or the US.â The reader would know, or could look up, who was the King of England. They wouldnât be looking for a King in the US. Likewise a reference to President would resolve to FDR.
OK you need to lay out exactly who you think wrote Genesis/Exodus and when. If written by Moses, at least partially, it wasnât 1,000 years later and the audience would have known which Pharaoh he was mentioning.
The various forms of Egyptian have a long and documented history in Egypt.
Only if the local Egyptian words had been absorbed into swahili. They wouldnât be just picking Egyptian words at random to include in their writing. This requires a period of contact between the swahili culture and the Egyptian culture, which actually makes my point.
Yes that is the whole point of the loan words. They represent Egyptian words that have been picked up and used in daily life. This indicates the Hebrews were living in Egypt long enough to have adopted some of the local vernacular.
Not if both king and president were referred to as âhead.â
Written by Moses c. 1500 bce. Moses knew the Pharaoh to be in the indus valley. After the exile, wrongly identified with egypt.
Yes. But this was after the exile. Not before exodus.
And @Bill_II please do respond to the 5 levels of evidence.
Yes if both king and president were referred to as head: head of U.S. necessarily implies president and head of England necessarily implies king (or queen, of course).
Not quite. If we did not know whether it was uk or us, then head could mean either.