You are repeating your charge that I have provided no evidence. I have provided a logical argument (X is impossible, and therefore “not X” is the case, with X being the subjective morality view). As logic is evidence, this charge is simply untrue.
I did not say that I couldn’t see how an ultimate standard of subjective morality could work; rather I showed that the subjective morality view defeats itself logically. I concluded that the subjective morality view is logically impossible, not that I couldn’t see how it was possible. My credulity never entered the argument, so this criticism is also untrue.
I have not claimed that a particular moral system is axiomatic, but rather that axioms (of some kind) are indispensable. The only moral axioms I have needed for this argument are that at least one personal moral exists, and that it is possible to justify one action as more moral or less moral than another. I don’t think we disagree on those axioms, so there need not be debate here.
Let me point out that I am referring to formal logical arguments when I say “logic.” Sometimes the word logic just refers to any kind of reasoning, but that is a distinct meaning from formal logic. Your conversation with @Dale shows me that you have been using the latter meaning (for example, when you say, “There are many, many examples of morality disagreeing with basic logic,” which is not true if we intend logic to mean “formal logic”), which might be grounds for some of the confusion. Whatever the reason, I have found your description of my statements to be inaccurate, so I am trying to clarify them here. I have not yet seen a refutation for the problem raised by my argument (especially my posts on January 16 and January 21), a problem which I see as fatal to the subjective morality view.
There’s a good article about the slavery question called “The Bible and Slavery,” by Andrew Judd. I’ll link it below. Essentially, it explains how the Old Testament economic system referred to as slavery is not the same as what we are used to calling slavery today (in the US, anyway). He gives more meat to my summary about various parts of the law having different purposes, too. As another example, I’d like to supplement his article with the following: the Mosaic Law allows divorce, and yet elsewhere God says He hates divorce (Malachi 2:16). How can these coexist? Jesus explains it in Matthew 19:8. Basically, it was a temporary allowance that God was gracious to permit, not a declaration of moral perfection. Parts of the Mosaic Law were meant this way as guards, guides, and restraints particular to the society and culture for which they were given. We should not read the entire Mosaic Law as the one, singular, perfect, objective moral standard, so to pick out individual laws this way is to miss the point of the law. The law had other purposes, probably the most important being to point us to Christ. It is in the person and the work of Jesus Christ that the Mosaic Law finds its fulfillment (see Matthew 5:17, John 1:17, and much of Romans and Galatians).
Because I think it is relevant to your subjective morality view, I want to ask you again about my Molech example from last week. Do you affirm those sacrifices as morally right since they were accepted in that culture?
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