Regarding the theological dilemma of original sin and total depravity if the Adam Eve story isn’t historical: have we considered that we may have our argument backward?
Early in my Christian faith I noticed several curious passages that that struck me as odd, such as the “evening and morning” repeated in Genesis 1. Shouldn’t it have said “morning and evening”?
Anther was the redundant argument in Romans 5:12, “for all have sinned”. Why would Paul have bothered to add that when he just stated that everyone inherited the sin nature from Adam?
Later I noticed in 1 Kings 8:46 - Solomon’s prayer dedicating the temple, that he stated “for there is no one that does not sin” without reference to A&E nor the fall.
So why did Paul link the fall (the original sin) to universal depravity? Consider the issue he was addressing in Romans, that Jews were no better than Gentiles, that Yahweh loves the Gentiles as much as He loves the Jews, and that the need and means of salvation (faith) is the same for the two groups.
So is A&E’s original sin the foundational argument for universal depravity? Or is universal depravity - as inherited through all generations - the foundational argument for common need and opportunity for salvation by faith, to Jews as much as to Gentiles?
Looking at it from the latter perspective, the idea that A&E is not historical in no way impacts my belief in universal depravity through all generations.