When we look at Genesis 1-11, especially Gen. 2-4, what we see is a “Neolithic Adam”. We see a man from the fertile crescent who received knowledge of farming and animal husbandry, as born out in the life of Cain and Abel. We see Cain the farmer who was fearful of being killed when banished, but then going and starting for a city. There is really no way to harmonize the Adam and Eve of the bible as our Y-MRCA and X-MRCA early paleolithic hunter-gather ancestors. I’ve been entertaining an interpretation that “biological humans” were created by God in Genesis 1 and given a command to “rule and subdue” and “eat whatever you want” and “fill the earth”. Something that may have been accomplished by the descendants of “old humanity” (x and y MRCA). Either out of Africa, or a small bottleneck near Africa. Physical humans were stuck for 100,000 years, as a purely “natural being”, but could not break through past the brink of survival, and having been given no command, they were not under sin. Then God, at the proper time (end of Ice Age) created Adam, genetically equivalent to all natural humans, but without any damage from “survival of the fittest” in his own nature/nurture. His parent was the personal God, and he was under perfect nurture–without any corrupted dispositions to “aggression, harm, indulgence” (i.e. “sin”). Then God gave him 1 command, and now all humanity was represented by Adam with a chance to the tree of life (he has the best chance to choose love vs. desire), but he chose independence from God and knowledge apart from him. Then knowledge, sin and accountability entered the world through Adam and spread to all mankind. How? Either Adam being a representative of humanity, as Christ was (ontologically, spiritually), or through the spread descents of Eve as “the living” (maybe passing on a higher language/awareness composition) So TE (biologos) folks really have a dilemma in my opinion. Either 1) Adam and Eve and their offspring resorted hunter-gather conditions after the fall 75-150??kya and remained that way until the Neolithic Revolution (which doesn’t harmonize with Genesis), or 2) Natural selection has been a process of the “awakening of mankind” via the selection of genes related to domestication, lack of aggression, language, and cognition. If the latter, and what point did “Adam come to be”? Moreover, if natural selection for those things has been occurring to bring about a “biological” Adam and Eve, wouldn’t have continued to occur for the last 100,000 years in a world apart form God? But this is a bit scary as it would mean humans are becoming “more or less fashioned in the image of God” via evolution. But what about a 3rd option? What if humans were :"formed’ in the image of God already, but not accountable? What if Adam’s lineage out of the Neolithic Holocene participated bringing mankind (not bios, but accountability) via domestication, language, sedentary life, and so on? In this way Adam spread sin. Because when humans get time on their hands, they no longer merely live for survival in relative innocence, but for knowledge/religion/power. Is it possible, that paleo-human were in some kind of unaccountable “stupor” of some sort, until more complex language and lifestyle arrived?
I think there has been a tendency in the field of anthropology to protect itself against racism and western superiority as they began to go out to study tribal hunter-gatherer cultures, so as not to imply that “civilized” cultures evolved more (intellectually, morally) than tribal ones. And they were right, they discovered that these cultures were not savages or ignorant, but really just like us. But where do we get the idea that early biological humanity (150-15kya) before it’s “process of domestication”, could not have been been substantially different? Perceived as threatening, because much of their lifestyle was similar to present day foraging communities, we protection archaic humans as we see ourselves in them. And I understand the concern there. But the fact is that all humans (today) have culture and language, and given the right environments and opportunities are capable of learning at the highest capacities. And in any given culture there is a diversity of talents, and even multiple intelligences (music, art, athletic, social, emotional, language, math). Even tribal communities today have to learn oral tradition, culture, and many nuanced pieces of information to insure continuity in community and survival. We are one race, I have no doubts about that. Moreover all post Neolithic (HG) practice religion, marriage, and moral thinking, and have some aspects of sedentary life (is there any culture today without knowledge of some types of plant and animal domestication? See below the email I sent to a secular anthropologist. Secular anthropologists have to admit that cognitive/behavioral evolution has been occurring since the dawn of humanity…such that what we are today is substantially different the paleo-humans.
What if present day foraging cultures are now (have really become) biologically different and more advanced (than past paleo HG’s>) and have also been influenced by 1) back migrations for the last 12kya, 2) parallel evolution in regards to domestication. Even Africa has had several back migrations (even amongst the deepest pockets of x and y MRCA), as well as Australia had a migration in the Neolithic Holocene which is connected to the discovered tribal languages. See the article pdf url attached about the global impact of farmers and language. Even some farmers may have assimilated back into foraging populations and lifestyles. People have really been all over the globe, and there really is not truly isolated culture since before the Neolithic that I know of. So what I am saying is this: could there have been a cognitive/social/genetic “microevolution” that has changed humanity since the receding of the Ice Age? Based on farming, language, religion, morality, cooperation? I understand that there are a handful of artistic and religious artifacts from the late paleolithic, but they are very sparse (venus figurines, cave painting). In other words, why would we assume there have only been major selective advantages in physiological adaptations, but not in cognitive adaptations since the beginnings of our “biological humanity”? Don’t anthropologists assume that those selective advantages were occurring that led up to our Y-MCRA and X-MRCA (i.e. how we became “human” so to speak)? So why wouldn’t those selections not have continued through migration, selective breeding, domestication, civilization and the like for the last 15,000 or so years? Wouldn’t the more cooperative, more linguistically capable, and more creative have more success and offspring? Why would we say that for 150,0000+ years there has been little genetic evolution in regards to domestication, intelligence, language, or morality (cooperation), and that the earliest “modern humans” out of Africa (150kya) were relatively the same as today?
https://citeseerx.ist.psu.edu/viewdoc/download?doi=10.1.1.908.8346&rep=rep1&type=pdf