Klax
August 15, 2020, 6:30am
197
Mervin_Bitikofer:
Your question isn’t clear to me. But I gather you want my commentary on that verse and how it does or doesn’t fit as revelation or as rational.
Given that we have no way of empirically observing what all happens with the dead, any knowledge given about that would have to unambiguously count as revelation I should think.
Regarding the rationality of the verse; It seems to be a straightforward enough claim: that the dead are still subject to judgment, and therefore were granted spiritual life / opportunity as well. I don’t see anything irrational about the claim, as fantastic as it sounds to our mortal ears.
Sorry for the lack of clarity, but you ran most well with it.
Particularly as I got the WRONG Harrowing of Hell reference. I meant I Peter 3:18-20
So my apologies to you and Peter.
Furthermore although my question stands for those verses in chapter 3, they cannot be considered in isolation from the one in chapter 4.
For now, you will be glad to know, I’m hoist with my own petard.
Later!
But to summarize, revelation only works at all in the person of Christ. Not in virtually anything said especially about the meaning of Him, even by and to Himself.