It’s bizarre that you should choose to make that inference. Why did you do that?
[My apologies Dale, please see.
So, I’d better answer even though I didn’t mean this verse at the time: 1 Peter 4:6 For this is the reason the gospel was preached even to those who are now dead, so that they might be judged according to human standards in regard to the body, but live according to God in regard to the spirit.
because incidentally I do take that literally in that Peter - if it was him - meant what he said. However if the tenses are correct then there are multiple interpretations:
The gospel was preached to the dead after their deaths. Which is erroneously fed back in to I Peter 3:18-20
The gospel was preached to those who have since died.
Either way, they are on their way in the transcendent; all is well for them.
How do you interpret it?]