Best revelation should not be confused with your open-theism view. That is under discussion. Best is a loaded word. Best for what? Teaching about God’s love and faithfulness? Sure. Teaching us metaphysics or science? Not so much. Secondly, as I have shown, we believe that many of the philosophical attributes of God from people like Aquinas are found in the Bible. You seem to just be comparing Hebrew beliefs as a whole, as if they were univocal, to Greek beliefs as a whole, as if they were univocal. Which Greek beliefs? Which Hebrew beliefs? From which time period? I am commenting on immutability and divine simplicity. This has nothing to do with every Greek thought or belief or Platonism. You also seem to think the verses you don’t interpret as anthropomorphic are identical to the Hebrew interpretation of God. That is hardly the case.
When properly interpreted by the Church. This doesn’t 't mean science or philosophy cannot illuminate our understanding of God or that there are not anthropomorphic conceptions of God we should definitely not treat literally (as you yourself don’t in genesis 2). We have two books, Scripture and nature, which includes philosophy.
There is a difference between being subject to time as some external reality distinct from God and acting in time. If God is not pure act or being itself, this means there could be other Gods or a higher God. If you posit a image of God with potentiality the battle is lost in my mind.
The classical theist of the Thomist tradition distinguishes between real and “Cambridge properties” of God. The latter are extrinsic and relational and do not affect God’s divine essence. Intrinsic or essential properties would be something like omnipotence or immutability, both of which are strongly suggested by scripture and stem naturally from metaphysical arguments. Feser writes:
When Socrates grows a beard, that involves the acquisition by him of a real property. But when he becomes shorter than Plato, not because of any change he undergoes, but rather because Plato has grown taller, that involves the acquisition by Socrates of a Cambridge property. It is, in this case, Plato rather than Socrates who acquires a real property.
Now, it is possible for something to have a Cambridge property by virtue of also having a certain real property. To modify my example, suppose that Socrates had been Plato’s father, so that it is by virtue of his having been begotten by Socrates and inheriting Socrates’ genes that Plato eventually grew to be taller than Socrates. Then there is a sense in which you could say that Socrates’ action, the action of begetting Plato, caused Socrates (later on) to become shorter than Plato. Now, there is obviously a sense in which Socrates’ action of begetting is intrinsic to Socrates. Something has to happen in him in order for the begetting to occur. And so, something had to happen in him in order for Plato later on to grow taller, which resulted in Socrates being shorter than Plato. But does it follow that Socrates’ becoming shorter than Plato is not a Cambridge property after all but a real one? Of course not.
Now in the same way, it is certainly true to say that there is something intrinsic to God himself that makes it the case that the world is created. No defender of divine simplicity denies that. But it simply doesn’t follow that God’s acting to create the world is not after all a Cambridge property, any more than it follows that Socrates’ growing shorter than Plato is not after all a Cambridge property.
You think the classical view is post hoc and the Church got it wrong for 2,000 years until an open understanding of God popularized in 1994 got it right? Hard pass.
I quoted a bunch of verses, God is the creator and sustainer of all things, time doesn’t apply like it does for us, He doesn’t change, etc. All of these beliefs are clearly articulated in scripture. You can take them how you want.
Do we have evidence he doesn’t care about modern history, modern science, systematic theology, philosophy, internal consistency and so on? And that. a Biblical author gets something wrong doesn’t mean God did not care about it. My model of inspiration allows for that.
But you are missing the point. @klw wrote:" I mean certainly the Hebrews were interested in portraying the best and true portrait of the character and Nature of God in their writing? And certainly God was in a position to reveal the most accurate portrait of himself to his people? No?"
The Old Testament is not some maximally accurate portrait of God. It is not a systematic theology or a philosophy text. Just as the moral rules in the OT are sometimes lacking, so to is what it says about God. Interpreting the Bible or what scripture intends to teach can be quite messy at times. And the OT most certainly regulates and permits slavery:
“20 “Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slave dies as a direct result, 21 but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property.”
Not to mention the conquest slaves. Jesus is the maximally accurate portrait of God which the OT prefigures and points to.
Vinnie
