Does genesis reflect the beliefs of the horite Hebrews Abraham's people does Judaism actually reject those beliefs

That’s all a good possibility, Adam.

I kind of enjoy discussing things about these earliest chapters of the Bible because they get discussed so little in your average Bible study. That is, I am interested until someone starts running off the rails, and then I wonder…?

As for “the man” in Genesis 32. I have a commentary by Westermann who decides in his analysis of verses 25-27 that the attacker may be a demon who nonetheless finds he cannot prevail over Jacob and who – in Westermann’s analysis – loses his (the demon’s) strength with the breaking of day… Westerman just continues with his belief that Jacob did not know who his attacker was “the river demon who wanted to stop him [Jacob] from crossing.”

I never quite heard that interpretation before. Westerman is contradicted by Wenham and most others I have ever heard remark on this pericope. Wenham, in fact, specifically names Westermann as someone whose interpretation (of other aspects of this pericope) he disagrees with. In commenting on verse 30, Wenham says “The ‘man’ now implicitly identified with God…refuses to give his name, lest it be abused…and then he blesses Jacob. And then he disappears into the dark, as suddenly as he came.”

And Sailhammer, in his commentary, said the one Jacob struggled with was an angel, but “an angel of the Lord”. But seeing “the ‘angel of the Lord’” was enough to make it okay to say that “he had seen the face of God.”

So Jacob could say he “saw God face to face, and yet my life was spared”.

I’m OK with the idea that Jacob was wrestling with God—or with an angel of the Lord who was “enough” for it to be a struggle between God and man, in that situation. Thought Westermann’s take was unusual but interesting too. And yes, I believe in the Trinity. It is hard to miss as a point of discussion for some. All for now
Merry Christmas! .

1 Like

Good comment, St Roymond. I have not (until now) heard this “second Yahweh” tradition applied to the situation with Jacob and “the angel of the Lord” in Genesis. But I have read that Daniel’s “Son of Man” vision—and some intertestamental writings (that did not make the canon) raised that issue — that is, of a binary (they would not have thought “trinitarian” in BC days) aspect of the (nonetheless) One God. I have read some modern Jewish commentators who have said something similar but added that Judaism changed its tack when they saw, in the first century or so AD/CE — what followers of Jesus did with the idea.

Merry Christmas!!

Oh, Claus, how silly!
Seriously, the things some people come up with – that’s a serious stretch given the context.

There are texts all over that have a dual YHWH happening. Genesis 32 isn’t one of the foremost, but it’s still there.

I was privileged to know and learn from a rabbi who was amazingly honest at how many Jewish teachings were jettisoned because of “what followers of Jesus did with” them. It really doesn’t begin until the second century, but then it really gets rolling and Judaism became a shadow of its former existence.

Did this rabbi you onnce learned also know of some “midrash” about the Messiah being born in Bethlehem? I read that from Boyarin in a book of his. Of course, you could say that it mimicked the Christian story a few centuries later…but have wondered about that one
As for Claus — I think he is interesting but he has a different perspective…indeed

@bharatjj what is this drawing about?

@St.Roymond what is jettisoned?

I looked this word online

Dictionary
Definitions from Oxford Languages · Learn more
jet·ti·son
/ˈjedəs(ə)n/
verb
past tense: jettisoned; past participle: jettisoned
throw or drop (something) from an aircraft or ship.
“six aircraft jettisoned their loads in the sea”
abandon or discard (someone or something that is no longer wanted).
“individuals are often forced to jettison certain attitudes and behaviors”

So what did the followers of Jesus do that threw out the Judaism throw toss? That caused Judaism to become a shadow of its former existence.

If there’s no separation, does what is thrown toss out still of us?

Or where do you think thoughts that are tossed out go? What is replacing thoughts? Is that a story?

Oh I found a Christian who claims the bible shows reincarnation

What do you think?

Circular reasoning!

It’s not a single drawing. The two tall figures are male and possibly meant to be deities; the cow – contrary to the yellow addition to the drawing – is curious since a cow is female and both Yahweh and Ba’al are male. The reference to Exodus is misleading. It could be meant as Yahweh, if you don’t mind the gender confusion, since Samaritan religion sort of replaced Baal with Yahweh – or merged the two – but that’s a historical question, not a scriptural one.
The seated figure, if the two tall ones are gods, would be the head deity; sitting was regarded as being the one in authority.
The bit on the left looks like it was a horse figure; I don’t know if there’s a gap in the drawing or not, but somehow the front of the horse got cut off. The missing part could be important if it was drawn by the same person who drew the other figures: to the left of the tall central figure are some markings I can’t make sense of since the rest of them is missing in the blank area.
Then under the cow someone later on was making tally marks. The marks in the lower right make no sense to me; I’d guess that parts of the image are missing both below and further right.
To get speculative, the tall figure seems to be standing on the ground while the one behind him could be above water – that little line with two peaks might be meant to depict a wave, in which case this god is either or a shore or is walking or gliding over water.
Oh – last bit: if the cow is meant as a deity I have no idea why the suckling calf. My guess is that the cow and calf are the oldest drawing and had no religious significance, and the gods and horse were added later.
A connection of the drawing to the inscription “Yahweh and his asherah” is doubtful.

The biggest was the declaration of a chunk of their theology known as the “Two Powers in Heaven” doctrine. This doctrine noted that Yahweh in the Old Testament can be found in Heaven plus on Earth in the form of a man at the same time, thus making two Yahwehs. The idea of Yahweh walking the earth in form of a man was too convenient for the Christians to make the case that Jesus is Yahweh, so the Jews declared it to be heresy.
A second would be changing the interpretation of a number of obviously Messianic prophecy to refer to Israel the nation and not a single person.

This left Judaism as a shadow of its former self because it stripped away not merely much of its richness but of the plain meaning of a fair amount of their scriptures.

Riversea…look “jettisoned” up in the dictionary if you want to know

The Bible does NOT teach reincarnation…save for the reality that there is going to be a judgment some day…and that is not reincarnation…that is judgment.

And why are you changing the subject Riversea! The initial query was about the location of Haran and Canaan, etc?

1 Like

Riversea…If you want to actually understand something and solve a question in your mind about an issue…then persue that issue.

Flitting around from one subject to another makes it look almost as if, when the answer you get is not what you want …so “no matter; we will just move along.”

Your source is someone who is trying to sell a book and also to re-make someone else’s religion and holy book to suit his own beliefs. That in itself is a controversial move…but…

Fair enough if he has history and/or archaeology on his side.

Since the initial conversation was about Jews originating in India…then see below:

he Jewish community has been living in India since 75 CE and comprises a tiny but important part of the population. Many Jews settled in India after fleeing coastal areas of what is now Israel after the fall of King Solomon’s second temple. They sought to avoid persecution from the Greeks.

This is just an “off the Internet” summation. It is consistent with larger more academic sources…cited by others on this site elsewhere…

And 75 CE, if you are wondering, was five years after the date of the destruction of the Jewish temple—and also, “after the birth of Christ,” etc…

Trade routes are one thing. They were commercial enterprises, not signs of mass immigration…But for an INDIAN source on all this…

Here is an Indian (Indian as in India) description of migrations from India. See below…

below from science.smith.edu

Decline of the Indus River Valley Civilization (c. 3300-1300 BCE)

What happened?

  • The Indus River Valley Civilization, also known as the Harappan Civilization, was one of the three early civilizations in northwestern South Asia, along with Egypt and Mesopotamia. It was located in what is now Pakistan and northwestern India.
  • This civilization existed between 3300 and 1300 BCE, with some cities reaching a population of 60,000 at their peak from c. 2600 to 1900 BCE. The Harappan people traded with Mesopotamian cities, built complex infrastructure with sewage systems, and had their own form of writing. They relied heavily on the flooding of the Indus River for crop irrigation and agriculture, and they built wells, drains, channels and dams to control the river water.
  • Around 2500 BCE, civilization in the Indus River Valley began to decline as people migrated eastward to the Himalayan foothills. Here, they shifted from a civilization composed of large cities to one of mostly small farming villages (map below). By 1800 BCE, most Harappan cities were almost completely abandoned. Eventually, the villages in the foothills declined too.

—from Wikipedia article on the Harrupan language:

The Harappan language is the unknown language or languages of the Bronze Age (c. 2nd millennium BC) Harappan civilization (Indus Valley civilization, or IVC). The language being unattested in any readable contemporary source, hypotheses regarding its nature are reduced to purported loanwords and substratum influence, notably the substratum in Vedic Sanskrit and a few terms recorded in Sumerian cuneiform (such as Meluhha), in conjunction with analyses of the undeciphered Indus script.

There are a handful of possible loanwords from the language of the Indus Valley civilization. Sumerian Meluhha may be derived from a native term for the Indus Valley civilization, also reflected in Sanskrit mleccha meaning non-Vedic or native, and Witzel (2000) further suggests that Sumerian GIŠšimmar (a type of tree) may be cognate to Rigvedic śimbala and śalmali (also names of trees).[3]

Identification[edit]

There are a number of hypotheses as to the nature of this unknown language:

below from ncbi.nih etc

The earliest evidence of farming-based economies in South Asia has been traced back to Mehrgarh, Pakistan ∼9 kya.1, 2 From there, farming and a settled way of life spread farther east, laying foundations for the later Indus Valley civilization (3300−1300 BCE). Climatic reconstruction and other studies suggest that the decline of the Indus Valley civilization in the Bronze Age was most likely driven by a long-term drought, which might have triggered a movement of its inhabitants eastward toward the Gangetic Plain in about 2300 BCE.3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8

Contemporary populations of this region vary in their rituals and display diverse ethnic backgrounds.9, 10, 11, 12, 13, 14 The eastern Indus Basin, part of the early Vedic India (c. 2000 to c. 600 BCE), comprises the historical Kurukshetra15, 16 (now a district in the Haryana state). It adjoins Northwest (NW) India, which is the homeland of various ethnic communities whose long-term occupation of the area has been described in many Vedic and Hindu scriptures.17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22

Previous genetic studies have revealed a higher West Eurasian affinity among Northwest Indian and Pakistani (PNWI) populations than among South and East Indians.23, 24, 25, 26,

below from eupedia.com/genetics

Haplogroups of Bronze Age Proto-Indo-Europeans

Author: Maciamo Hay.

In the 1950’s Lithuanian-American archeologist Marija Gimbutas proposed the so-called Kurgan hypothesis, which postulates that the Proto-Indo-European (PIE) language arose in the Pontic steppe. During the Yamna period, one of the world’s first Bronze Age cultures, Proto-Indo-European speakers migrated west towards Europe and east towards Central Asia, then South Asia, spreading with them the Indo-European languages spoken today in most of Europe, Iran and a big part of the Indian subcontinent. The Kurgan model is the most widely accepted scenario of Indo-European origins.

Most linguists agree that PIE may have been spoken as a single language (before divergence began) around 3500 BCE, which coincides with the beginning of the Yamna culture in the Pontic-Caspian steppe, and of the related Maykop culture in the northwest Caucasus. There is now compelling genetic evidence that haplogroups R1a and R1b, the most common paternal lineages in Europe, Central Asia and parts of South Asia, were mainly propagated by the Indo-European migrations during the Bronze Age. A sizeable part of European maternal lineages also seem to be of Indo-European origin, although the proportion varies a lot across Europe, but generally correlating to a large extent with the proportion of Y-haplogroups R1a and R1b.

Other paternal lineages, such as G2a3b and J2b2 may have spread during the Copper Age from the Balkans to modern Ukraine, then to have been absorbed by the expansion of R1a and R1b people respectively from central Russia (Volga basin) and southern Russia (Kuban, northwest Caucasus). The first PIE expansion into Europe was the Corded Ware culture, which so far have yielded only R1a and G2a samples. R1b is thought to have invaded the Balkans, then followed the Danube until Germany, from where it spread to western Europe and Scandinavia. The Asian branch originated around the Volga basin, then expanded across the Urals with the Sintashta culture, then over most of Central Asia and southern Siberia.

Bronze Age cultures linked with the diffusio

One of the few things in there that I’ve heard about before.

Nice information.

Thanks…some surprises for me too. I once read that R1a and R1b groups only entered the British Isles with the arrival of the Vikings. This data may have been updated or may still be true. But, of course, I did not think far enough back. These groups had histories before they were Vikings…

That actually sounds familiar.

I have some Viking blood from two different places, one on my mom’s side and one on my dad’s, so I got curious and did a college paper on them. I was surprised to find that Vikings ventured to and some settled in just about everywhere from the Atlantic to the Urals, mixing with locals everywhere they went. They even provided the imperial guard for Byzantium for quite a while!

well…I do from my father’s side…that arrival would have been about 9th century CE/AD or so…seems the Vikings got around…in more than one sense.

1 Like

Seems they spread more than just the wealth. :upside_down_face:

You could put it that way!!! :smiling_face:

Notice also…in the above blurb, …there is NO mention of mass migrations from India “west” towards the area known as Canaan. The migrations mentioned (as far as this blurb goes) were from the Indus Valley towards the Himalayas, southeast Asia, etc…

…The only other contributions were Alexander the Great’s army contributing to the local gene pool and post-Exilic migrations of displaced Hebraic tribes …and all those pre-Vikings, of course.

1 Like

Jews carry the R-M124 gene, how is R-M124 similar and different from the R1a and R1b group?

Well and Cistern, or only wells in Eden

According to Alice C. Linsley blog Just Genesis : Challenge to Shaye Cohen's Portrayal of Abraham

Linsley wrote, "Genesis 3:15, the Edenic Promise received by Abraham’s ancestors who were rulers in the well-watered region of Eden. This promise is the origin of the Messanic expectation among Abraham’s people, who were not Jews, but Horites.

My question is: I wonder, were there only wells, or were there also cisterns there too?

Riversea…I made that comment to a different “poster” simply as a comment. The Vikings invaded the British Isles around eighth through the mid-11th centuries CE/AD—and so that haplogroup begins to appear in that island nation at that time. Those of us with ancestry interests, and who also happen to know we carry that haplogroup, are intrigued by this link to what they call “deep ancestry.” It does not mean that every person with R1a or etc is immediately related to every other R1a person…after all, the tenth century was a very long time ago.

But it does not much pertain to the topic here of Horite Hebrews and Abraham, etc.

But…getting back to that subject, below is from scirp.org…please read. There will be a test afterwards–(LOL)

This article aims at reconstructing history of R1a1 ancient migrations between 20,000 and 3500 years before present (ybp). Four thousand four hundred sixty (4460) haplotypes of haplogroup R1a1 were considered in terms of base (ancestral) haplotypes of R1a1 populations and timespans to their common ancestors in the regions from South Siberia and northern/northwestern China in the east to the Hindustan and further west across Iranian Plateau, Anatolia, Asia Minor and to the Balkans in Europe, including on this way Central Asia, South India, Nepal, Oman, the Middle East, Comoros Islands, Egypt, etc. This study provides a support to the theory that haplogroup R1a arose in Central Asia, apparently in South Siberia and/or neighboring regions, around 20,000 ybp. Not later than 12,000 ybp bearers of R1a1 already were in the Hindustan, then went across Anatolia and the rest of Asia Minor apparently between 10,000 and 9000 ybp, and around 9000 - 8000 ybp they arrived to the Balkans and spread over Europe east to the British Isles. On this migration way or before it bearers of R1a1 (or the parent, upstream haplogroups) have developed Proto Indo-European language, and carried it along during their journey to Europe. The earliest signs of the language on passing of bearers of R1a1 through Anatolia were picked by the linguists, and dated by 9400 - 9600 - 10,100 ybp, which fairly coincides with the data of DNA genealogy, described in this work. At the same time as bearers of the brother haplogroup R1b1a2 began to populate Europe after 4800 ybp, haplogroup R1a1 moved to the Russian Plain around 4800 - 4600 ybp. From there R1a1 migrated (or moved as military expeditions) to the south (Anatolia, Mitanni and the Arabian Peninsula), east (South Ural and then North India), and south-east (the Iranian Plateau) as the historic legendary Aryans. Haplotypes of their direct descendants are strikingly similar up to 67 markers with contemporary ethnic Russians of haplogroup R1a1. Dates of those Aryan movements from the Russian Plain in said directions are also strikingly similar, between 4200 and 3600 ybp.

Question: where does R1a1 haplogroup come from?
Question: what year, in BC/BCE terms, is “20,000 ybp”
Question: how many years between 20,000 ybp and the presumed lifetime of Abraham?

OK…no this is not a test! It just seems that one can read position papers showing this group – likely many others – with a long history that roams a significant area of the known world When was the Bronze Age?

It’s all interesting, and I did not expect to find this particular citation when googling. Seems that R1a and/or R1a1 got around…and went through many regions, including Central Asia, parts of India, and is found today in…

The gene that you said Jews carry is found in many or most Ashkenazi Jews and located in Syria/Iraq …not India (note).

As for those Horites you keep returning to…

this was discussed in earlier posts here…actually 14 days ago…Horites were “in the hill country of Seir,” per Genesis 14:6. That area is a region “between the Dead Sea and the Gulf of Akaba” (see earlier citation in response to YOU, Riversea)…in other words, an area that is now part of the nation of Jordan…not India.

Please look up the definition of “cistern” and also of “wells.” What is the difference?

Look up the definitions of those words, Riversea. I am sure you are capable.

Abraham came from Ur of the Chaldees, not the garden of Eden. That is a whole other topic. Jews were also not called Jews in Abraham’s day and this is not even a question for the period of time you are presuming to be discussing. They may not have been living in what is now Jordan, so far as is known. Thus, calling them Horites is speculative in the extreme. They were Chaldeans at best…maybe something else. The text of the Bible does not tell us great detail.

I looked a bit at Linsley’s blog …but you will not learn, from reading her work, about the definition of wells and cisterns. Check your dictionary. Google the word “cistern.” Also google “well.”

The Garden of Eden’s exact location is controversial and, according to the biblical account, humankind was expelled from that grand place after the sin or rebellion of the original inhabitants. So it is not likely to be a useful discussion point for locating ancient peoples. …including the ancestry of Abraham. Long story. Sorry…it is just not…