Can God author a text with errors?

< Insert made-up standard here >

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Origins explain how; they don’t explain why “ought” binds.

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The pressing question, IMO, is: what happened to Jack Dawkins’ “brute lovelessness”? And another: What is the fossil of “ought”?

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This topic is adjacent to the question: How can we know that we are living in the best of all possible worlds?

Quite so.

I have to agree.

And another says “men moved by God”, which as far as I can see gives us a definition of “God-breathed” – god prompted them to write.

Nice analysis – I lean the same way, though I couldn’t have put it as well.

It’s right there in the Abraham cycle: the promise of making his descendants a great nation was given with a purpose, namely that all the nations of the earth would be blessed.
When you look at it from the perspective of second-Temple Judaism, which noted the three great spiritual rebellions (Eden, pre-FLood, and Babel) the whole point of the story looks to be Yahweh gathering all humans to Himself.

Definitely – it wasn’t sloppy scholarship that led more than one translation committee to call the word חֶסֶד (khesed) the central word of the OT; it can be translated as “steadfast love”, “unchanging love”, “grace”, and similar terms.

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In philosophy class (third year) we invented the Dutch philosopher Gerhard DeHoors, who held that “This is one of all possible worlds”.
(The name was chosen to make a joke, accusing some of “putting Descartes before DeHoors”.)

I suspect few can put things as well as Stanley Porter.

Forcing a modern view requires rejecting the original view so to me it is the same thing.

“Not I said the duck”, You are confusing me with the many others.

Not from me. We are probably closer than you think. I go for a progressive appreciation of God which requires accepting what a earlier text says at face value but knowing our understanding has been changed over time.