Even though this was entirely off our topic of Christs sacrifice and whether it was immoral or just, I’ll delve into this and give it my best shot.
Exodus 21:21: Anyone who beats their male or female slave with a rod must be punished if the slaves dies as a direct result, but they are not to be punished if the slave recovers after a day or two, since the slave is their property.
Now, most people (I imagine like you) would love to assume that this is a direct advocacy of beating innocent slaves, (again, as if its a comparison to American slavery) almost like what was done during American chattel slavery.
However, in ancient Israel, slaves/servants were not to be oppressed and beaten (shocker). Israelites were prior slaves themselves (in much, much harsher conditions), I find it illogical to assume that Israelites went around abusing their slaves.
The reason a slave might be beaten, however, is two options:
The slave denies working/rebels, or the slave commits a crime (Deuteronomy 25:2).
- If a slave rebelled and didn’t work, should they talk to him and give him warm cookies? No. We don’t do that in our American prisons, either, if someone rebels they’d be lucky to get away with anything less than being tackled by police and tased. So I question how a rebelling slave (who either committed a crime or sold himself) is supposed to change my mind. This sounds an awful lot like an appeal to emotion.
If the slave committed a crime, it was the law for him or her (according to their law) to be beaten with however many lashes, depending on the severity of the crime. The greatest option? No. But the only option. There was no other way to punish people back then, prisons didn’t exist and they didn’t have any way to securely detain them for a prison sentence. Lashings was a fast way to punish crimes given their absence of prisons.
Another very important thing to note is two things:
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Slaves could not be maimed. (Exodus 21:26-27). Knocking even a single tooth out of the slave was immediate freedom, whether a criminal or not. So, to me that seems to outlaw permanent damage in general, unless there was some kind of special, divine law to protect eyes and teeth.
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Slaves could run away, not to be returned. (Deuteronomy 23:15-16). Apparently, if a slave ran away, he was not to be returned. So, tell me this: If you sold yourself into slavery to pay off a debt, and your master was a dick who beat you, would you run away? I would. And then you get to pick your city and not be oppressed, so yay for running away, I guess.
I think that pretty much covers Exodus 21. If I missed anything, drop an indication on a brother and I’ll get straight into researching my flaw.
Judges 1:28: When Israel became strong, they pressed the Canaanites into forced labor but never drove them out completely.
So, let me get this straight: The pagan, sexual orgy partying, bestiality loving, child sacrificing Canaanites were not all killed, in battle, but instead were spared as forced labor…
And you expect… sympathy?
No.
Exodus 21:7-11: 7 “And if a man sells his daughter to be a female slave, she shall not go out as the male slaves do. 8 If she does not please her master, who has betrothed her to himself, then he shall let her be redeemed. He shall have no right to sell her to a foreign people, since he has dealt deceitfully with her. 9 And if he has betrothed her to his son, he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters. 10 If he takes another wife, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, and her marriage rights. 11 And if he does not do these three for her, then she shall go out free, without paying money.
This is dealing with a man selling his daughter (just like he’d sell his sons, assuming he even has sons, many people don’t have sons, ya know).
Verse 8 seems to be what you’re struggling with, and I can’t help but wonder why… if the two engaged people don’t get along, he can give her back to her father.
Why is that supposed to bother me? That’s in favor of the slave woman…
Are you reading a bit too much into “please her master”? I think you are.
The rest is in favor of her. He isn’t to sell her to foreign people, since she isn’t a virgin (they were engaged and all). If he engaged her to his son, he shall deal with her according to the custom of daughters. If he takes another wife, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, and her marriage rights. And if he does not do these three for her, then she shall go out free, without paying money.
Maybe you could help me out a bit, since apparently I’m just a blind, indoctrinated Christian: What is wrong about that? Sure, arranged marriages aren’t ideal, I don’t like them either. But that’s how things were done in the ancient world, and even are still occurring to this day, and weren’t uncommon in the late 1800’s. It wasn’t just Israelites.
I hope I’ve shed some light on these verses. Don’t get me wrong, I know you won’t accept them, but nonetheless you should admire the time I took to type all this out, right? Well, I hope you do.