Why didn't even Jesus address the first and greatest inequality of all?

Well, tough question. But he mainly used hyperbole to condemn the rich, praise the poor who showed God’s character, and I suspect used language of the day to show his kingdom is not from this world. His message is bigger than I can summarize… I keep trying, but realize there is more to learn. I am sure that you are acting in His wishes to speak for the oppressed. My main failing in this situation is to remind myself, as Chesterton said, that I am what is wrong with the world.

We all are Randy, we’re blind to injustice. Oscar Romero pointed it out and they murdered him at the altar.

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What was Jesus’ mission? It wasn’t about material health and wealth.
 

On the last and greatest day of the feast, Jesus stood up and called out in a loud voice, “If anyone is thirsty, let him come to Me and drink.
 
John 7:37

As for what was sown among thorns, this is the one who hears the word, but the cares of the world and the deceitfulness of wealth choke the word, and it proves unfruitful.
 
Matthew 13:22

 
The poor can be deceived by and idolize wealth as much or more than the rich. That there’s always someone buying a lottery ticket at the convenience store pretty much makes the point.

The greatest inequality?

Would that be how people are born with different abilities?

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