Well…this is an interesting blog trail…Though polytheism amongst early Christianity — incl NT passages – is not well supported. It’s just an interesting point for discussion based, most likely, on our own misunderstanding of those times.
As Nickolaos suggested, there is at least an assertion out there in cyberspace that there was a mistranslation. See this from catholic.com
“For the son of God became man so that we might become God,” the official Latin text reads, Ipse siquidem homo factus est, ut nos dii efficeremur . Literal translation: “For the Son of God became man so that we might be made gods.”
As for some of the ideas or verse translations being cited, I am not so sure…
I do not find any suggestion that “Greek ‘seed’ is the word for sperm.”–thus saying “that people born of God have Gods seed implying divine nature,” as SuperBig asserts for 1 John 3 etc…
The Word Biblical Commentary on 1 John 3:9 translates, “No one who has been born of God commits sin, for his very nature remains in him; and he cannot sin, because he has been born of God.” The New Oxford Annotated Bible (NRSV) translates the verse " Those who have been born of do not sin because God’s seed abides in them they cannot sin because they have been born of God" —with the footnote that that “God’s seed” represents the Holy Spirit–with the idea being that “mutual love …distinguishes God’s children.”
The New International Version says “No one who is born of God will continue to sin, b ecause God’s seed remains in him; he cannot go on sinning because he has been born of God.”. No commentary on the verse here.
I looked up the Keith Giles name. He is described elsewhere as a pastor with a church who left that church and started a house church which donated all its funds to charitable endeavors. Has a church, left it, started a church…There is a story there. You cannot say that human existence is without drama.
But if Giles asserts that the early church and the NT contain hints (or assertions) of polytheism or an expectation of being made gods, then he is not joined by many others in that thinking. The New Westminster Dictionary of Church History has an entry on Athanasius of Alexandria that does not analyze Athanasius in quite this way. Nor do the writings of a number of modern-day theologians – both Jewish and Christian— on what people of that era would have expected of a messianic figure, as Jesus was believed to be. “Ignatius…wove within his understanding of the relationship between the Father and the Son the simple and unequivocal proclamation that Jesus Christ is God” (see Thomas Weinandy, The Apostolic Christology of Ignatius of Antioch: The Road to Chalcedon," in Trajectory through the New Testament and the Apostolic Fathers (pub 2005), p. 76…which gives 14 references to various remarks by Ignatius.
That would be Jesus as God…not you or me.
It is possible that any idea of a sort of 'man becoming divine" idea comes from a mixing of the philosophies of the gentile world of that era and the theology of the Jewish world. But that mixture would have entailed some misunderstanding of what a messianic being— such as that for which Judaism waited — would have been. “Devotion to Jesus as divine erupted suddenly and quickly, not gradually and late,” as both Ehrman and Hurtado (quoted here) have asserted.
This would be Jesus as divine ----humans becoming divine as part of it? That was not part of what was understood by those who looked for a messiah. Israel Knohl, in his The Messiah Before Jesus, does a good job of tracing the belief in a messianic figure back to the Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53, noting that this belief existed in Jesus’ time and was held by some in the Qumran community. And, as the New Catholic Encyclopedia noted (p. 63) “no Jew would ever have understand ‘Son of God’ in the loose Hellenistic sense of ‘semi-divine human’…the title … conveys full divine status.”
So I do not understand Giles’ perspective and am not confident that he should be taken as more than an interesting thought.