The Meaning of the Word "Day" in Genesis 1

What kind of DAY is it … where there is no Sun to mark the rotation of the Earth?

How does linguistic precision apply to a cosmic situation that no human has ever seen?

How can we fixate on the PRECISE meaning of a Day, when there are lots of spelling and grammatical differences between what we read in Chronicles and what we read in Genesis?

And we haven’t even started a discussion about all the differences between Ezra and Nehemia… when there is something as precise as body counts - - differences in the numbers are scattered throughout.

How much LESS hope is there for expecting some kind of consistency on anything in the received Hebrew.

George

I don’t believe there is ANYTHING in the Old Testament that justifies this kind of rigor … especially about something that was never witnessed by humanity but has been recorded by the mind of man.

[quote=“jammycakes, post:124, topic:4219”]
I’ve already told you twice and I’ll tell you a third time because you’re obviously not paying attention. The fact that nobody prior to the 1970s was seriously promoting this hypothesis, despite the fact that it would have furthered their agenda to do so.
[/quote]Not to belabor this (and this may indicate that you are not paying attention), but that’s not evidence that it is wrong. By this standard (“no one ever promoted it before” or “it only comes from people with a vested interest in it”), nothing would be accepted. The point of exploration is to discover, to improve, to further. In fact, one of the requirements of an academic doctorate is to further a field of study with an original contribution. By your standard, it seems no one could ever do that because all a committee would have to do is say “No one ever seriously promoted that before and you have a vested interest in the outcome of it. Denied.”

Here is an example of evidence: Here are some cases in contemporary literature that disprove the hypothesis.

Do you have any evidence that the theory is wrong?

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@Saito, most of your post is an exercise is irrelevance and arrogance. And some of it is is pretty bad thinking and writing, most of which I will ignore. But at the end, you open yourself to more questions and so let me press you to actually comment on the topic you claim to know about.

What are the counter examples in the HMT or in other contemporary literature that prove it untrue?

(I don’t think McCabe is trying to impose an absolute grammar rule, but I will let that go.)

[quote=“Saito, post:125, topic:4219”]
I have no problem accepting most uses of YOM in Genesis 1 as a “conventional” day.
[/quote]So you agree with McCabe, Hasel, and others. You just don’t like how he gets there and you don’t like the conclusions he draws from it?

[quote=“Saito, post:125, topic:4219”]
Perhaps my use of the word “post-apocalyptic” was unknown to you. I apologize if that should have been explained. I had assumed it a commonly understood term.
[/quote]No, your meaning was clear. Your analogy was bad because it fails to note that they would be able to do (probably better) the very same thing we can do, namely, study ancient sources and build on the information we know. They will have more information than we will have.

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[quote=“Christy, post:126, topic:4219”]
It still doesn’t do anything thing to further the argument that Genesis 1:1-1 is not poetic, figurative liturgy, but rather non-figurative historical narrative. To further that argument you need to deal with the text at the discourse level, not the lexical level.
[/quote]I agree with you here. The topic of this thread is “The Meaning of the word 'Day” in Genesis 1." The argument concerning historical narrative is actually a different argument. The meaning of “day” in Genesis 1 answers those who would argue that YOM means long periods of time in which evolution took place. It doesn’t mean that.

[quote=“Christy, post:126, topic:4219”]
I think this seriously underestimates the complexity of human communication as well as how much we can actually calculate with math in plate tectonics.
[/quote]I do think there are differences and human language is very complex to analyze though surprisingly simple to use in most cases (though written communication clouds it considerably). My main point is that at the end of the day, is that plate tectonics and continent movement is not something that can be reproduced. We might have very exact models of how it could have or likely did happen. But at the end of the day, those are models that may prove to be incorrect based on further discoveries or improvements. And if something is missed, it distorts the model.

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It is a conventional day made up of evening and morning according to the text. And since this is a “cosmic situation that no human has ever seen,” on what basis do you say it is something else?

[quote=“gbrooks9, post:127, topic:4219”]
How can we fixate on the PRECISE meaning of a Day, when there are lots of spelling and grammatical differences between what we read in Chronicles and what we read in Genesis?
[/quote]We can start by noting that Chronicles and Genesis are separated by about a thousand years. So we can compare the writing of Beowulf to modern writing for an illustration of the difference. Having said that, it is likely that the older writings were maintained and occasionally updated, yet there is a difference. We could also note the difficulties of manual transcription through centuries. But we can also note that the idea of a “day” is not that confusing to most people. The context of its use, whether now or then, is pretty easy to determine. No one is really confused by it.

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I shall just refer you to this blog post. The author addresses this very question as well as anyone else I’ve seen. Oh, and by the way, he is a young-earth creationist.

On the contrary, one should be very wary of arguments that only come from people who have a vested commercial interest in them. Otherwise the tobacco companies could publish studies that show smoking doesn’t cause cancer and we’d all just take them at face value.

Now, if you want me to answer any further questions that you may have, I will first expect you to answer mine, which so far you have completely failed to do. These are as follows:

  1. Can you give me a reference for the “yom with a number” rule that is verifiably independent of, and free from influence by, the teachings of the young-earth organisations?
  2. If not, can you explain why nobody discovered it earlier, despite the fact that there was no shortage of very smart and very determined people with a fairly strong motivation to look for arguments such as this years before?

So, LT, what you are saying is … just believe YOU … you know what is right.

[quote=“jammycakes, post:132, topic:4219”]
I shall just refer you to this blog post. The author addresses this very question as well as anyone else I’ve seen. Oh, and by the way, he is a young-earth creationist.
[/quote]If that’s the best you have to address this particular argument, then you don’t have much because you notice that he doesn’t actually address the argument and the evidence regarding the specific hypothesis put forth. I agree with most of what he says. In fact, his article on One Reason I Am Skeptical of an Ancient Earth makes a point I have been trying to make here about the use of ancient data and models and extrapolation. I think his point is overlooked or ignored.

But here’s a problem: He gives an example to refute the hypothesis concerning the use of YOM in Genesis 1. His example is Hos 6:1-2, which he is correct is a use of YOM modified by numbers. So far so good. But he misses the fact that YOM in Genesis is singular absolute; in Hosea is a plural in the first case and a construct with a prefix preposition in the second case. That’s a key point of the argument (whether it is valid argument or not). The argument has to be addressed on that point by showing somehow that the singular absolute doesn’t mean anything. So his comparison text isn’t actually a similar text. The construction in Hosea is the one normally used to refer to long periods of time. That doesn’t prove the “rule” (and I use that loosely). But it does show that Hosea is not a valid comparison text.

(It’s also a problem that he quote Geisler as an expert on Hebrew.)

[quote=“jammycakes, post:132, topic:4219”]
On the contrary, one should be very wary of arguments that only come from people who have a vested commercial interest in them. Otherwise the tobacco companies could publish studies that show smoking doesn’t cause cancer and we’d all just take them at face value.
[/quote]I would encourage you to be wary. But no one is asking you to take this at face value. To the contrary, I am saying “Let’s examine it. Show me some evidence that disproves it.” You haven’t done that yet. You have simply rejected it at face value, which is just as bad as accepting it at face value.

[quote=“jammycakes, post:132, topic:4219”]
Can you give me a reference for the “yom with a number” rule that is verifiably independent of, and free from influence by, the teachings of the young-earth organisations?
[/quote]No. But I don’t keep up with Hebrew studies these days and I don’t know that anyone else has ever looked at it. Can you give me any Hebrew scholar who refutes it with evidence and argument that is independent of and free from influence by evolutionary organizations? Or name any Hebrew scholar who has interacted with it? I think the answer is no. Can we really believe that BioLogos is objective and free from a stake in the outcome of the debate? They can’t afford to give any credit to a YEC, no matter the strength of the argument. I would love to see a Hebrew scholar use a scholarly method to review and critique the position put forth by Hasel and McCabe.

But this is irrelevant as I have said (no, I haven’t refused to answer it). Why should you reject a hypothesis simply because you don’t like its source? Why not examine the evidence and see if the evidence takes you somewhere. If it doesn’t, fine. But so far, you haven’t examined the evidence. You have simply said in essence, “A YEC said it. I don’t need to consider it.” That is bad method.

[quote=“jammycakes, post:132, topic:4219”]
If not, can you explain why nobody discovered it earlier, despite the fact that there was no shortage of very smart and very determined people with a fairly strong motivation to look for arguments such as this years before?
[/quote]I don’t know that nobody discovered it earlier and unless you know everything that has ever been said about Hebrew, you don’t either. But more importantly, science and theology are subjects of research and development. That’s how you get a research or academic doctorate. So we should expect new discoveries and new applications of old discoveries. Your question can be asked of anything in history and then used to refute it. The theories of evolution are relatively new (and constantly developing). Should those of past eras have rejected it simply because no one had ever said it before? You would say no. So why is this different?

Again, no one is asking you to take something at face value uncritically. To the contrary, I am simply saying we should examine the evidence and see where it leads us. Will you examine the evidence without bias and see what it says? It doesn’t require you to become a YEC. To me, the framework theory (which is widely held) could fit very comfortably in the argument made about the days in Genesis 1. So I am not overly concerned about that. But we should at least examine the evidence before rejecting it on the basis of a byline.

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No, to the contrary. Go back and see how many times I have asked people here to look at the evidence and the arguments and interact with those. Why do you keep missing that? Why make it about me? I am not asking anyone here (or any where else) to believe me. Let’s look at the evidence.

Why not just get out your Bible (Hebrew is best but since you are citing Strong’s I am going to assume probably don’t read Hebrew, which I admit makes me wonder how you can be so dogmatic about it) and look up the passages and let’s discuss them. If you have articles or other sources to consider, let’s get those and talk about the issues.

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And yet I provided texts mentioned as relevant by your sources, and yet you say… “no, no . . . not THAT reference”.

Sir, you make me laugh.

[quote=“gbrooks9, post:136, topic:4219”]
And yet I provided texts mentioned as relevant by your sources, and yet you say… “no, no . . . not THAT reference”.
[/quote]I don’t recall the sources I suggested mentioning Gen 1:5 as relevant in the way you suggested it was and neither of them mention Gen 8:22. So I am not sure what you claim here is based on.

In both cases, I showed the issue with bringing these up in the way you did, to which you did not offer a rebuttal. No one disputes that “day” sometimes means the daylight portion of the day. And as I said, Gen 1 includes “evening” as part of the day, which means that those occurrences of yom mean more than simply daylight. That is confirmed by the numbering of days which require successive periods of daylight interspersed with darkness (layeleh). In essence, you are arguing an indisputed and irrelevant point.

It seems, George, that you are in a bit over your head here can’t really respond to the Hebrew evidence. That’s fine. Not everyone can. I know some Hebrew, but I am by no means a scholar. That means I know more than some and less than others. I can make sense of Hebrew arguments and can evaluate them at some level. I am interested in the response of those who can do likewise. Laughing at me won’t help you deal with the evidence at hand, and that is what I am interested in. If you don’t have any input on the evidence, then I will move on.

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Wow. This is a bit like a tennis match. :smile:

Hypothetically, if I were to build a house and write about it, I might start by saying something like:

At the start I laid the foundations and built the walls… I went to sleep in the evening and in the morning woke. That was the first day.

Now I appreciate that English grammar and Hebrew grammar are different, but (as far as I know) not so different that we cannot interpret it. (Otherwise we would not be able to translate the Bible.) Is it reasonable to assume that everyone here understands that I mean the first solar (or daylight) day, because of the context? It would be unreasonable to assume that I mean millions of years. So can someone tell me - in polite terms, please - why we should not interpret Genesis 1 in the same way. And I am talking here about grammar, context, definitions, etc., not whether God actually used long ages.

Matt

I used your sources… but made no special effort to tell you that I used your sources.

You rejected them, and straight-armed me, saying it was all obvious.

Blah blah blah. My life is too short to work with someone who is going to spend his life-cherry picking the
evidence.

Please find someone who has more time…

George

Amen! This is what it’s all about.

Where did “my sources” use either Gen 1:5 or 8:22 in the way that you claim? Please give me a page number so I can look them up.

I will tell you ahead of time, I have already searched them and didn’t find them. So I will await your response to see what I missed.

No… you’ll just argue about it.

There are SO MANY instances where a specific word is used in different ways…

… so to have YOU arbitrate which “different ways” are acceptable, without any citation to support
YOUR opinion is really all I need to know.

As a good neighbor of mine once said, “It’s worth a few dollars to find a man out.” In this case, I didn’t
have to spend any money … just my valuable time.

Have a very good day!

George

[quote=“gbrooks9, post:142, topic:4219”]
No… you’ll just argue about it.
[/quote]They aren’t there and I know it and you probably know it. And any one here can check that by downloading the articles, hitting control-F, and searching for the passages in various ways (such Gen 1:5, Genesis 1:5, Gen 8:22, Genesis 8:22, 8:22, etc.). You will be able to verify that George is not using passages from my sources. He has not told the truth in this matter.

[quote=“gbrooks9, post:142, topic:4219”]
There are SO MANY instances where a specific word is used in different ways…

… so to have YOU arbitrate which “different ways” are acceptable, without any citation to support YOUR opinion is really all I need to know.
[/quote]There is plenty of citation and an extended argument about it. I didn’t arbitrate anything. I put forth a hypothesis arguing for a conclusion. You have yet to address the ideas of the article. Why not?

LT, you lost my trust in your judgment. Let’s leave it at that.

[quote=“gbrooks9, post:144, topic:4219”]
LT, you lost my trust in your judgment. Let’s leave it at that
[/quote]I never asked you to trust my judgment. It was never about me period. Frankly, I think it’s silly to trust the judgment of some unnamed person on a discussion board on the internet. I certainly don’t trust you.

But you have said something that appears to be manifestly and demonstrably untrue, and then tried to blame me for it. You want let that go to? Or do you want to either demonstrate it was true or apologize for it?

As soon as you told me something was “obvious” but offered no specific citation … that’s when you essentially said to “trust you”.

Can’t.