Your quote from 1 Cor raises another point. Paul calls the words he is writing the “Lord’s command.” You then say he wrote “words of God for God’s People.” The question this raises is to Whom does the word “Lord” refer, Jesus or God the Father. I would say that it is most likely Jesus, because that is how Paul usually referred to Jesus, but of course we know that Jesus is God and “the Lord” or “the LORD” can also refer to the God of the OT.
1 Like