You used the term in the following post on another thread:
It doesn’t really matter whether you call them Adamic/non-Adamic, H. sapiens/theological humans, unFallen/Fallen, or some other pair of terms that the general public will find more acceptable. (I assume they will not swallow human/not-quite-human, so something less problematic must be found from a PR standpoint.) The distinction is still there. (Did I answer your question, too, @Jonathan_Burke?)
That’s exactly what I said, the process must have been completed by the first century:
So, again, if the process must have been completed by the first century, then you are making a historical claim. Show me some historical evidence that at least makes the idea plausible. Math won’t get someone across the ocean. [quote=“Swamidass, post:56, topic:37034”]
This is all dealt with in the paper @Jay313. It passed peer review with people more skeptical than you, without any scientific objections. There is just evidence and information you are ignorant of. Take a look at the paper. It is on my website.
[/quote]
I took a look. I disagree with your evaluation of the isolation of South America. There is zero evidence that anyone from the “Old World” visited South America at a time when ocean-going vessels didn’t exist. You tried to explain the lack of evidence of any contact, but I think your explanation failed. It’s as simple as that. Others are free to read it and make up their own minds.