Which greek would that be where
“is” is not found?
Codex Sinaiticus has the following
παϲα γραφη θεο
πνευϲτοϲ και ω
φελιμοϲ προϲ δι
δαϲκαλιαν · προϲ ε
λεγμον ˙ προϲ επα
νορθωϲιν · προϲ
παιδιαν την εν
Which is translated as:
16 All scripture is by inspiration of God, and is profitable for teaching, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness,
Bible hub Interlinear has the following:
◄ 2 Timothy 3:16 ►
2 Timothy 3 - Click for Chapter
16 3956 [e]
16 pasa
16 πᾶσα
16 Every
16 Adj-NFS
1124 [e]
graphē
γραφὴ
Scripture [is]
N-NFS
2315 [e]
theopneustos
θεόπνευστος
God-breathed
Adj-NFS
5624 [e]
ōphelimos
ὠφέλιμος
profitable
Adj-NFS
1319 [e]
didaskalian
διδασκαλίαν ,
instruction
N-AFS
1650 [e]
elegmon
ἐλεγμόν ,
conviction
N-AMS
1882 [e]
epanorthōsin
ἐπανόρθωσιν ,
correction
N-AFS
4314 [e]
pros
πρὸς
[and] for
Prep
3809 [e]
paideian
παιδείαν
training
N-AFS
3588 [e]
tēn
τὴν
1343 [e]
dikaiosynē
δικαιοσύνῃ ,
righteousness
N-DFS
The Latin Vulgate, which is not Greek, translates without “is”
16 omnis scriptura divinitus inspirata et utilis ad docendum ad arguendum ad corrigendum ad erudiendum in iustitia
All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice:
In order to best understand which is the correct meaning of this verse, one cannot straw pluck at individual translations singling out only the one which suits ones theology. I would argue that the Vulgate still claims that all scripture is inspired by God…it is not claiming that some of the Bible Cannon is not inspired.
We know this because that which is not inspired was not included in the Bible cannon (for example the Apocrypha, outside of Catholicism isnt considered inspired as far as i am aware).