“So in the end the cause of death was the Father removal. So in one sense His clinical death was as you say human. But In another sense the cause of death was as supernatural as the incarnation.”
Troy, that sounds a bit dogmatic and unscriptural! We die when our body can no longer function in this world and our spirit is forced to leave. Christ’s life on earth was in every way like ours except for sin, so why shouldn’t his death be also? “But Jesus, again crying out in a loud voice, yielded up his spirit.” Matt. 27:50; “But Jesus gave and loud cry and breathed his last.” Mark 15:37; “Jesus cried out in a loud voice saying, 'Father, into your hands I commit my spirit. With these words he breathed his last.” Luke 23:46; “After Jesus had taken the wine he said, ‘It is fulfilled’; and bowing his head he gave up his spirit.” John 19:30. So scripture tells up that Jesus gave up his spirit and elsewhere (Paul?) that he then descended to Hades to preach to the souls of those waiting there. There is nothing here to suggest that the Father miraculously removed his spirit to accomplish his death in order to match the miracle of his conception in Mary’s womb, and I cannot see how it helps us today to indulge in such speculation let alone state it as if it were a fact.
[quote=“St.Roymond, post:122, topic:51537”]
“That denies what Paul wrote about Christ as the Prototokos. The term means “opener of the way”, and when Paul calls Christ the opener of the way of Creation, then – call it ontological if you want – the only possibility is that Christ’s enfleshment was the actual first act of Creation.”
Thank you, St Roymond, for your comment on ‘prototokos’.
Firstly, my online research tells me that in this context ‘prototokos’ means ‘firstborn’, not ‘opener of the way’. The following quotation on the meaning of ‘prototokos’ as used by Paul in 1 Col. 1:15 appears in the penultimate paragraph of an article on the aomin.org website entitled PROTOTOKOS (“Firstborn”): Its Meaning and Usage In the New Testament.
“Lightfoot gives a list of the Fathers that support this view, and says, ‘All the fathers of the second and third centuries without exception, so far as I have noticed, correctly refer it [the title prototokos] to the Eternal Word and not to the Incarnate Christ, to the Deity and not to the humanity of our Lord.’”
This summarises my position. This idea lies behind my reply to Adam when I quote my book’s argument that in the Word (the Father’s self-image, the only-begotten Son, the second person in the Trinity) the Father sees all the creative possibilities present in his divine nature and chooses to create our universe (and for all we know any other universes which fulfil his purposes) because he sees that his creative choice will be pleasing to him. Hence the phrase, “through him all things were created.” Before creation there is nothing for God to work with other than the creative potential present within his own nature, so I use the image of God as “a supreme artist creating his masterpieces on a canvas of nothing but potentiality.”
Scripture presents us with a time constrained history of salvation opening with the famous verse “In the beginning God created heaven and earth.” This both scripturally and metaphysically is the ‘first’ act of creation. Howsoever Colossians 1:15 is understood, Paul plainly never intended his words to contradict this biblical opening by saying what I understand you to be saying, viz. “In the beginning God became incarnate in Jesus Christ to accomplish the salvation of fallen humanity by his death and resurrection and then created the universe and all its history leading up to that momentous event, including the Fall which triggered it.”
Thus expressed, you can see why such an inversion of actual biblical history is unacceptable. If, on the other hand, all you mean is that God’s principal motive in creating the universe was in anticipation of an event scientists tell us occurred 14 billion years after Big Bang then that doesn’t come over as your intention.
If I’ve misconstrued your argument then of course I apologise. But as you have presented the case, you seem to imply an impossible circularity in the sequence of events, i.e., creation-incarnation-creation or - worse still - incarnation-creation, impossible because the incarnation is an event in creation’s history and history can only occur if there is a prior act of creation.
The question has been raised in this debate of whether the incarnation was the primary purpose of God’s creation. Personally, I don’t think scripture says this, and as I said in my reply to Troy, this would imply that God could only achieve his creative purpose if Adam and Eve and their progeny failed to obey his will, thereby necessitating a plan of redemption. As if God’s goal in creating our universe could only be realised provided mankind sinned and opened up the awful possibility of final damnation. This seems a very strange, even repugnant, idea to me.