Authority of scripture

The authors of scripture were writing in the best knowledge they had at the time of how the universe worked. We do the same today, we know more than they did, but also the way science works makes it likely we believe something now that in the distant future will be considered false.

God accommodates us in our understanding at any given stage of human development. Same as a parent does their child when explaining something complex. Same as my physics professor In college did when teaching me algebra based physics instead of calculus based as I couldnt comprehend calculus. He saw something elegant and beautiful in the calculus of it, but it was beyond my understanding.

Thank you for your words Dogdoc (and work taking care of furry friends…if you are a vet :grinning_face: )

I definitely understand what you are saying. But I am not convinced enough by the idea of accommodation that I don’t still have further questions. One reason I am not convinced enough is that accommodation assumes that the Bible is (or at least contains) some kind of communication that comes from God. God only needs to accommodate to these ancient people if God were actually communicating with them. I am just not so sure anymore that God was.

If the Bible is God’s accommodated communication to the ancient people of Canaan, the actual words and stories are secondary to some kind of “hidden” meaning, then why not also say the same thing about the communication to the ancient people of the Indus Valley for example that came to be known as Hindus with their own sacred texts? If the communication is taking myths to communicate truths, then do the myths really even matter? Couldn’t any myth be used then for this purpose? And then other sacred stories and books may just also be of the same character as the story in Genesis 1. Why was God communicating only to Israel in Genesis 1 and not also to Babylonians through the Epic of Gilgamesh?

My belief at this time is that the Bible is not God’s communication to people. The Bible is an attempt by ancient people to explain the unexplainable (creation, sin, death, love, suffering, worship, etc.). It is the reaching up to God/Heaven/Meaning (not God handing down God’s words).

God has not accommodated modern humans living now. All we have is a 2000+ year old book that is confusing! I would LOVE some modern day accommodation! :innocent:

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Thank you! Yep, Im a vet :slightly_smiling_face:

Thanks for your honesty in your current thoughts on this. I can see what you are saying and your concerns, and I have worked long years thinking through those issues too. The questions you have are very layered, and there are responses, but in truth no one can prove it unequivocally. In the end, both positions - “is it true?”, or “is it false?” are a matter of faith to be taken by each individual based on the information they have and know - hopefully after thought and research, whichever way they decide (which seems to be where you are).

Honestly, were it only for the Old Testament, I might have a hard time believing too. But it is in the person I see in Jesus and what he says (what he ACTUALLY says, not necessarily what other people say he does) that I see something that resonates with me. So I look at Him, and in the person I see, I see truth and the face of God and Love. From that person I then look back to the culture he worked in, and from that basis all my other views fall into place.

But not everyone sees that in Him, and if so that is OK. Each must decide for himself.

Thanks again for your honest reply.

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Hi. (and hi to @Hamfy). Just jumping in to say briefly that my “Christocentric” view of scripture seems similar to yours, Dogdoc. Because I have come to believe that Jesus is God, and because Jesus took the OT “seriously”, I too must wrestle with the text of the OT and assume that it has teaching value in an authoritative sense. That does not mean a naive “literal”/surface or “flat” reading of the text. Jesus himself went back to the OT to exegete that the purpose was “to point to himself” and he challenged previous interpretations and assumptions of the Jewish establishment of the day. We learn from Hebrews 1:1-2 for example, that Jesus Himself is God’s final and most complete revelation of himself. As a Christian, then, I think my focus is primarily to learn what it means to understand and to follow Jesus, not getting too hung up on trying to decipher a singular fixed and certain meaning from a set of words on a page (as if it always exists). Neither do I feel any pressure to assume that the text itself is an “inerrant” revelation in every possible way. God’s intent was not to reveal Himself in a perfect book, but in the flesh, in his perfect Son.

But, yeah, Jesus becomes the lens with which I read the OT and the means by which I try to sift “God’s message of himself trying to break through” versus “human stubbornness and blindness and cultural influences” that have affected how the biblical authors have written. For me, it also does not mean that no wisdom whatsoever can be gleaned from other traditions or texts like the Bhagavad Gita. But because Jesus happens to endorse the OT scriptures and apostolic writings and not the B.Gita, where such writings come into conflict, I would consider the biblical text (Or Jesus’s view) authoritative.

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I wonder if you think he knew the B.Gita even existed. That’s a question of Christology. :slight_smile: I don’t find it instructive (at this point) that a Jewish man, raised in a culture that endorsed a Jewish text, would not do the same with a Hindu text/Scripture. Even in my former Christology I would say he didn’t even know about the B.Gita (or that the world was round and not flat).

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Sure…given that Jesus’s audience probably didn’t know about the Gita we probably would not have expected him to quote it even if Jesus himself knew about it (that is indeed a question of Christology). But I think that misses my core point. Jesus quoted the existing religious text which his audience was familiar with not just to extract pearls of wisdom (which may be found in many places and in many texts), but to explain how the (limited and often misinterpreted) text’s main purpose was to point to Himself. Jesus was not ultimately concerned that people follow a text (whether it be the Gita, Plato, or the OT scriptures), but that people followed Him. I do not consider Christians “people of the book” (any book) put “people of the person”, i.e. Jesus. Perhaps that makes me a heretic in some Christian circles :wink:

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Excuse me? They all, including Jesus, understood God the Killer. But they ALL, including Jesus, got that wrong. About himself.

Ah, but, unfallen humans know everything. Riiiiiight.

And so Jesus knew he wasn’t a serial mass murderer. But nobody else did going forward did they?

Not according to Barth.

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Yeah, I concur with Barth’s take on “The Word”. I cringe inwardly when I visit a church and after the scripture reading, the ritualistic phrase is uttered “this is the word of the Lord thanks be to God”. Not everyone shares my personal hang-ups but fortunately this has not been the practice in my Mennonite tradition :wink:

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People like MMLJ & P?

Not sure who you mean. Besides, it was a general statement, not directed at a specific individual.

We only know what the sayings of Jesus from other people.