I just quoted scripture to you that defines sin.
I will post the definition again…this time FROM BOTH TESTAMENTS.
1 John 3 :4 (KJV) Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law
Jeremiah 24:5 (NLT)
The earth suffers for the sins of its people, for they have twisted God’s instructions, violated his laws, and broken his everlasting covenant.
Notice that there are two parts above…in answer to your other misinterpretation (you have a lot of weird doctrines that are misinterpreted), Gods covenant is everlasting. That means that is has existed for as long as our highly intelligent and all-knowing creator has had the ability to think up such things.
The biblical explanation is that the 10 commandments, given on tablets of stone, were a reminder that God is love (hence the notion of them being called “Gods law of love”).
The law given on tablets of stone were a reminder simply because the entire group of Hebrews in Egypt knew only the Egyptian way of life. That is the secular influence that they had lived for 400 years (you clearly forget this simple fact). If you believed in the literal Exodus you would understand the very real dilemma there but as you do not, there in lieth the root cause of error in your theology on this subject.
God is love and His law is a reflection of that in that when we keep the law, which sinners obviously cannot do, we become the image of Him. That’s the whole point of Creation. That God created us in His own image we were not created sinful or sinners. It was only the ancient serpent Satan who brought temptation here. You seem to think sin and salvation are part of the evolutionary process, however, biblically that is a false theology.
And since only you appear to believe that God is still learning from his stuff ups in creation, it is only you who invoke these crazy beliefs.
As ive said before, you are intentionally conflating two absolutes into a single theological definition. The absolutes are Judgement and Salvation.
Conflating those two into a single definition in the way you do is errant theology and here’s why…
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Its only the wicked who face Judgement. The righteous who walk in boldly before the throne are deemed righteous because they are already justified by the cloak of Christ’s righteousness which happened at conversion. That is the whole idea of righteousness by faith. We, “those who keep the commandment and have the faith of Jesus”, are Justified by Christ’s atonement on the cross and our belief in its sufficiency for the wages of sin. Justification means - JUST AS IF I had died as punishment for my own sins!
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Those of faith still sin.
The death we all face as a result of sin corrupting the world…that is not the eternal death that Christ died on the cross to save the Saints from. That is the natural consequence of what happens to the whole creation as a result of the corruption of sin. The bible says “all creation groans under the weight of sin”, however, this is very different from the eternal death that forms the notion of righteousness by faith that Christ died on the cross for.
So those who face judgment have already been condemned.Those of faith walk right on by and through those “pearly gates”. That’s the point Paul is making there. there is no biblical statement at the second coming that says those who are dead in Christ are then sent to judgment…they are gathered together in the air with the righteous living to meet their creator in the sky and taken immediately to heaven.
It is only the wicked who die twice in the judgment…not the righteous. The second death is specifically for the wages of sin (unless you can find me an array of bible texts that says something different?)
Now before i end this…
you continue to go down this rabbit warren concerning the Mosaic law and the covenant. What you simply fail to comprehend is that all of this only became necessary because of Sin…PERIOD!
Sin is quite simply “TRANSGRESSION OF THE LAW”!!! Satan and his angels broke the law when they rebelled in heaven, Adam and Eve sinned when they disobeyed Gods command to “not eat of the tree of the tree in the middle of the garden”.
The Bible says “sin entered this world through one man, Adam”. If there is no law in heaven transgressed by Lucifer and his angels, and no law in place in the Garden of Eden, then you have absolutely no standard by which judgement can be applied in either of the above.
That means both Lucifer and Adam are neither sinful nor unrighteous for sins committed prior to the law at Sinai!
That also means Pharoah cannot have been punished for hardening his heart…what law did he break for which atonement must be made?
Atonement is only made on behalf of Israelites for breaking the 10 commandments (unless you want to claim the entire Old Testament Sanctuary Service model was only for the Jews to conduct sacrifices in order to buy Adam and Eve out of Purgatory?). So the fact remains, whilst the 10 commandments are only recorded on “paper” (so to speak) at Sinai, they clearly existed for thousand of years prior to that date (indeed id say eternally actually).