Matthew 19: 3 - 9
Jesus says that the Scripture of the time was created to accommodate and then summarily rejects that accommodation.
How can this hermeneutic then be applied?
Situation A is bad, Law A is given to slightly move everything forward but still bad, NT command is given that supersedes but both of the latter are justified?
Slavery exist and is bad, Law adds some regulations but still is bad, NT adds a way to slowly address it but does not go into banning it?
If OT is Scipture and cannot be broken, how then does Jesus’ teaching fit here?
Moreover, arranged marriage was between teenaged girls and slightly older guys who have not even developed their prefrontal cortex and there are huge consent issues. Yet these are not addressed and instead there is a blanket prohibition. Abuse and other things are not addressed as well.
Most modern churches do not hold to Jesus or Paul’s teaching on this and set it as a backburner to other “more important issues”
Is this approach to sin simply that it means that people are not perfect, oh well stuff happened, let’s move on except if you are doing/are from these select categories of sin?