Thanks for showing me this video to make it clear! So, from my understanding after reading your comment and watching the video, Zechariah 14:7 is referring to the day of the lord, which is longer than 24 hours. What about the “neither day or night” phrase and the “at evening there will be light”?
I think the point is that there have been more than one ‘Days of the Lord’ and that there is a final one coming. To read literal details into the metaphors and demand literal details from them misses the point. There may be literal aspects to them, but that is hardly the primary message we should be concerned about.
It’s not that it’s longer than 24 hours or shorter than 24 hours, it’s that day isn’t being used as a measurement of hours in that context. It’s being used to label a point on a timeline. It would be like if I said, “She is looking forward to her wedding day.” or “They’re taking a spa day on Wednesday” or “There’s going to be a day of reckoning for those corrupt politicians.” None of those contexts use day as a measurement of hours, they use day to signal a point on a calendar of days, a coming moment in time. If you insist a “spa day” or a “wedding day” or a “reckoning day” had to refer to 24 hours of spa treatment, wedding festivities or getting in trouble, just because the word day is used, that’s being weird and being wrong.
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If I said, “I put in a full day’s work at the food pantry,” would you think “day means 24 hours”?
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In general, is the day of the lord after the tribulation longer or shorter than 24 hours? I’m asking this because I’m curios about end time events too
It isn’t referring to a measurement of hours. It’s referring to an eschatological beginning point on the calendar. “Jesus will return some day” only has the moment of return in view, it does not have the duration of the return in view. “Judgment Day” is a point on a calendar, it’s not a scheduled event with a time slot.
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Maybe this will help with recognizing the difference between definitions and meaning.
Romans 10:16-18
New American Standard Bible
16 However, they did not all heed the good news; for Isaiah says, “Lord, who has believed our report?” 17 So faith comes from hearing, and hearing by the word of Christ.
18 But I say, surely they have never heard, have they? On the contrary:
“Their voice has gone out into all the earth,
And their words to the ends of the world.”
What does the last statement mean?
“Their voice has gone out into all the earth,
And their words to the ends of the world.”
It says their voice has gone out into all the earth.
Whose voice is they? Is it saying these people were so loud their voices was heard all around the world? Much like the JFK shot?
Their words have went to the ends of the world…. Where does the world end. Could you tell me the longitude and latitude of where the world ends?
Is this meant to be understood literally or does it have a non literal meaning?
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